Leads4pass PK0-005 dumps updated! Contains 302 latest exam questions and answers, which is the latest CompTIA Project+ exam material.
| Total Questions: | 302 |
| Single & Multiple Choice | 300 |
| Drag Drop | 1 |
| Simulation Labs | 1 |
| Last Updated | Jan 11, 2025 |
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| From | Number of exam questions | Associated certification |
| leads4pass | 15 | CompTIA Project+, CompTIA CySA+ … |
New Question 1:
During timeline creation, the project manager is unsure if the development team can complete coding before new servers are installed in the IT department. Which of the following should the project manager do to increase project certainty?
A. Hold a new backlog prioritization meeting.
B. Add milestones to check the project\’s progress.
C. Adjust the task relationship to complete coding in advance.
D. Apply contingency buffers to the critical path.
Correct Answer: D
Adding contingency buffers to the critical path is a method to account for potential delays, increasing project certainty. This technique is part of risk management and schedule management, as recommended by CompTIA Project+.
New Question 2:
A PM is working with stakeholders in the discovery phase and comparing the cost of the project to the cost savings the project will produce when it is complete. The output of this exercise will produce the:
A. ROI.
B. SOW.
C. RFI.
D. RPR
Correct Answer: A
The output of this exercise where the project manager is comparing the cost of the project to the cost savings the project will produce when it is complete will produce the return on investment (ROI). ROI is a financial metric that measures the profitability or efficiency of an investment by comparing its benefits or returns to its costs. ROI can help to evaluate the value or worth of a project and support decision making and prioritization. ROI is calculated by dividing the net benefits (benefits minus costs) by the total costs and multiplying by 100 to get a percentage.
New Question 3:
Which of the following best represents the project impact to a company\’s brand value?
A. The project is compliant with local and state laws and becomes the standard for new projects.
B. The project promotes new initiatives to expand its benefit to other communities.
C. The project exceeds the sales quota for the third quarter and raises the bar for next periods.
D. The project meets the expected milestones and finishes on time and within budget.
Correct Answer: B
the brand of a project should deliver the message about its value and goals, and a proper brand helps the project get the necessary support and increases loyalty. The project that promotes new initiatives to expand its benefit to other communities is the one that best represents the project impact to a company\’s brand value, as it shows the company\’s vision, cause, and reputation.
New Question 4:
Which of the following provides the best justification for undertaking a project?
A. Scope statement
B. Business case
C. Sponsor request
D. Project charter
Correct Answer: B
A business case provides justification for undertaking a project, programme or portfolio. It evaluates the benefit, cost and risk of alternative options and provides a rationale for the preferred solution. A business case is essential for demonstrating the value of the project and securing the approval and funding from the governance. A business case is different from a scope statement, which defines the project boundaries and deliverables; a sponsor request, which initiates the project idea and seeks support; and a project charter, which authorizes the project and assigns the project manager. References: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Initiating Projects; What is business case? | APM
New Question 5:
A project manager is receiving reports of the actual project expenditures and, based on this information, is making adjustments to the budget. In which of the following phases does this occur?
A. Planning
B. Closure
C. Initiation
D. Execution
Correct Answer: D
The execution phase is when the project manager and the team execute the project plan, deliver the project outputs, and monitor and control the project performance. This includes tracking and managing the project budget, scope, schedule, quality, and risks. Making adjustments to the budget based on the actual project expenditures is part of the monitoring and controlling process in the execution phase.
References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Executing and Closing Projects, p. 263.
New Question 6:
After a product is released for production, a tester performs a test to ensure its basic functionality is working as expected. Which of the following is the tester performing?
A. Smoke test
B. Stress test
C. Penetration test
D. Regression test
Correct Answer: A
New Question 7:
A piece of equipment has malfunctioned and is stalling the completion of a deliverable for a project. Which of the following should the project manager do next?
A. Buy a replacement for the faulty equipment.
B. Get the maintenance team to resolve the issue.
C. Escalate the issue to the project sponsor.
D. Rate the severity of the impact the issue has on the project.
Correct Answer: D
This answer is based on the best practice of issue management in project management, which is to identify, analyze, prioritize, and resolve issues that affect the project performance, scope, schedule, quality, or budget. The first step in this process is to rate the severity of the impact the issue has on the project, which involves assessing the likelihood and consequences of the issue, and assigning a rating or score to the issue based on a predefined scale or criteria.
By rating the severity of the impact, the project manager can determine the urgency and importance of the issue, and decide the appropriate course of action to address the issue. Rating the severity of the impact is better than the other options because:
Buying a replacement for the faulty equipment may not be feasible, cost-effective, or timely, depending on the availability, price, and delivery time of the equipment. It may also require approval from the project sponsor or other stakeholders, and may affect the project budget or scope.
Getting the maintenance team to resolve the issue may not be possible, depending on the nature and extent of the malfunction, the skills and availability of the maintenance team, and the warranty or service contract of the equipment.
It may also take time and resources to diagnose and fix the problem, and may cause further delays or disruptions to the project.
Escalating the issue to the project sponsor may not be necessary, depending on the severity and complexity of the issue, and the authority and responsibility of the project manager. It may also create unnecessary alarm or confusion among the project stakeholders, and may undermine the project manager\’s credibility or autonomy.
References:
CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, What is Issue Management?
1.
Issue Management Process
2.
How to Assess the Severity of Project Issues
3.
How to Prioritize Project Issues
4.
How to Replace Faulty Equipment in Project Management
5.
How to Manage Equipment Maintenance in Project Management
6.
How to Escalate Issues in Project Management
New Question 8:
A demo presentation for a global project was not as successful as expected because the development team misinterpreted which features needed to be incorporated. Which of the following has the project manager identified?
A. Technological factors
B. Poor sample data
C. Language barriers
D. Scope creep
Correct Answer: C
Language barriers can lead to misunderstandings within a global project team, causing misinterpretations of project requirements or features.
In this case, the development team misinterpreted which features needed to be incorporated into the demo presentation due to communication issues, likely stemming from language differences. This highlights the importance of clear communication and understanding in a diverse project team.
References:
CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, focusing on sections related to communication management and international project challenges.
New Question 9:
A development team, which is working on a software project demonstrates software functionality 10 project stakeholder a week before the implementation date. Several stakeholders comment that the software does not meet the communicated expectations.
Which of the following tools should the project manager use to validate the functionality?
A. Project status report
B. Requirements Traceability Matrix
C. Detect log
D. Signed project charter
E. Work breakdown structure
Correct Answer: A
New Question 10:
A new junior PM who has ownership of a project does not understand how to manage conflicts involving multiple personalities. Which of the following is the best order of the stages the PM should follow to nurture the team to high performance?
A. Forming, storming, performing, norming, adjourning
B. Forming, performing, storming, norming, adjourning
C. Forming, norming, storming, performing, adjourning
D. Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning
Correct Answer: D
This is the correct order of the stages of team development according to Tuckman\’s model. The forming stage is where team members first meet and get acquainted.
The storming stage is where team members experience conflicts and disagreements. The norming stage is where team members resolve their differences and establish norms and rules.
The performing stage is where team members work together effectively and efficiently. The adjourning stage is where team members complete the project and celebrate their achievements.
References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Project Team Management, p. 197; The 5 Stages of Team Development (Including Examples) | Upwork; The 5 Stages of Team Development – Teamwork; Using the Stages of Team Development | MIT Human Resources
New Question 11:
A project manager is creating the WBS.
In which of the following phases is the project?
A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Closing
Correct Answer: B
Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 139
New Question 12:
A project sponsor asked the PM to provide a summary of the current financial status. The PM uses the following burn up chart for the analysis:
Based on the chart, which of the following is the current status of the project?
A. Behind schedule and over budget
B. Behind schedule and under budget
C. Ahead of schedule and over budget
D. Ahead of schedule and under budget
Correct Answer: A
The project manager can use the burn up chart to analyze the current status of the project based on its scope (value delivered), budget (cost), and schedule (time).
A burn up chart is a graphical tool that shows how much work has been completed (burned up) versus how much work remains (scope) over time.
It also shows how much budget has been spent (burned up) versus how much budget remains (budget) over time. A burn up chart can help to monitor and control the project progress and performance and identify any variances or deviations from the plan.
The chart given shows that both scope and budget lines are above their respective target lines at any given time point. This means that less work has been completed than planned (scope variance) and more money has been spent than planned (budget variance) at any given time point.
Therefore, the project is behind schedule and over budget.
New Question 13:
Which of the following are primary features provided by a standard laaS solution? (Select two).
A. Encryption
B. Storage
C. Networking
D. User interface
E. Access
F. Database
Correct Answer: BC
According to What is Logging as a Service (LaaS)? – LogicMonitor, LaaS is a cloud-based log management platform that simplifies the management of infrastructure and application logs.
LaaS offers a central location where you can store, analyze and visualize the content of all your logs. It works by ingesting logs from different sources, such as web servers, IoT devices, database servers and more.
It then provides actionable output by organizing and restructuring the information within these logs. Therefore, storage and networking are primary features provided by a standard LaaS solution, as they enable the collection and transmission of logs from various sources to a centralized platform.
Encryption, user interface, access, and database are not primary features of LaaS, as they are either optional or secondary aspects of the service.
New Question 14:
As a part of a project, structured cabling activities have been outsourced to another company. The agreement is that work will take six weeks to complete and will be performed at different locations. Which of the following should the project manager do? (Select two).
A. Purchase the materials.
B. Assign the resources.
C. Accept delays in the work.
D. Approve the deliverables.
E. Monitor the performance.
F. Negotiate with the vendors.
Correct Answer: DE
The project manager should approve the deliverables and monitor the performance of the outsourced structured cabling activities.
These are the responsibilities of the project manager when dealing with external vendors or contractors, as they ensure that the quality standards, scope, schedule, and budget are met according to the contract terms and the project plan.
The project manager should also communicate regularly with the vendor and provide feedback and guidance as needed. The other options are not correct because: Purchasing the materials is not the responsibility of the project manager, but the vendor who is performing the structured cabling activities.
The project manager should only verify that the materials are suitable and available for the project. Assigning the resources is not the responsibility of the project manager, but the vendor who is performing the structured cabling activities.
The project manager should only ensure that the vendor has the adequate and qualified resources to complete the work. Accepting delays in the work is not a good practice for the project manager, as it can negatively affect the project schedule, scope, and quality.
The project manager should proactively identify and manage the risks and issues that may cause delays, and implement contingency plans or corrective actions if necessary.
Negotiating with the vendors is not a task that the project manager should do during the execution of the structured cabling activities, as it should have been done during the planning and procurement phases of the project.
The project manager should only adhere to the contract terms and conditions that have been agreed upon with the vendor, and only renegotiate if there are significant changes or disputes that require it.
References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Planning Projects, Part 4 (Procurement and Communication), pages 243-260; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective
2.5: Given a scenario, plan procurement for a project; Domain 3: Project Execution, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, execute and monitor project tasks using traditional methodologies.
New Question 15:
A project coordinator has started a new project and is reviewing the following characteristics provided by the customer:
Two developers High uncertainty about existing systems Risk of frequent requirement changes Tight deadlines
Which of the following project methodologies would be best to use in this situation?
A. PRINCE2
B. Scrum
C. SAFe
D. XP
Correct Answer: B
This answer is based on the best practice of choosing a project management methodology that suits the project characteristics and environment.
Scrum is an agile framework that is designed to handle complex and uncertain projects with frequent changes and tight deadlines. Scrum involves a small, cross-functional team that works in short iterations called sprints, delivering incremental and potentially shippable products at the end of each sprint.
Scrum also allows for continuous feedback and improvement through daily stand-up meetings, sprint reviews, and retrospectives.
Scrum is suitable for this project because it can accommodate the high uncertainty, the risk of requirement changes, and the tight deadlines, while also enabling the two developers to collaborate effectively and deliver value to the customer.
References: CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Project Management Methodologies Comparison (11 PM Methods), Project Management Methodologies: 12 Best Frameworks [2023], What is Scrum? Scrum Methodology: The Ultimate Guide
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FAQ
Are the CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 practice tests effective for the exam?
CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Practice tests, especially those from Leads4Pass and official sources, are very effective for exam preparation. CompTIA Project+ pk0-005 Practice tests are a valuable tool for exam preparation. By using them effectively, you can significantly improve your chances of success on the actual exam.
Will CompTIA Project+ certification still be popular in 2025?
Yes, the CompTIA Project+ certification remains popular in 2025 and beyond. CompTIA is a well-respected and globally recognized organization, and Project+ provides a solid foundation in fundamental project management principles. CompTIA regularly updates the Project+ exam to reflect the evolving needs of the IT industry. This ensures the relevance and value of the certification.